Full Test - NEET PYQs (2024)

Botany - Section A

1.

Synapsis occurs between:

1.a male and a female gamete
2.mRNA and ribosomes
3.spindle fibres and centromere
4.two homologous chromosomes

2.

Axillary bud and terminal bud are derived from the activity of:
1. Lateral meristem
2. Intercalary meristem
3. Apical meristem
4. Parenchyma

3. Which of the following are true about the taxonomical aid 'key' ?

a.Keys are based on the similarities and dissimilarities.
b.Key is analytical in nature.
c.Keys are based on the contrasting characters in pair called couplets.
d.Same key can be used for all taxonomic categories.
eEach statement in the key is called Lead.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1. (a), (b) and (c) only
2. (b), (c) and (d) only
3. (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
4. (a), (c), (d) and (e) only

4.

The floral formulaFull Test - NEET PYQs (1)is that of:
1. tulip
2. soybean
3. sunn hemp
4. tobacco

5. Which hormone promotes internode / petiole elongation in deep water rice?

1.2, 4-D2.GA3
3.Kinetin4.Ethylene

6.

The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates:
1. DNA replication is occurring
2. The DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre
3. The DNA double helix is exposed
4. Transcription is occurring

7. Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from-

1.Thalassemia2.Down's syndrome
3.Turner's syndrome4.Klinefelter's syndrome

8.

Which of the following pair of micronutrients would help in the light phase of photosynthesis to help in the reaction leading to oxygen evolution?
1. Zinc and Chlorine
2. Manganese and Molybdenum
3. Molybdenum and Iron
4. Manganese and Chlorine

9.

Offsets are produced by:

1.Meiotic divisions
2.Mitotic divisions
3.Parthenocarpy
4.Parthenogenesis

10.

What is the reason for the formation of embryoids from pollen grain in tissue culture medium?
1. Cellular totipotency
2. Organogenesis
3. Double fertilization
4. Test tube culture

11. Movement and accumulation of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can be explained by:

1.Active Transport2.Osmosis
3.Facilitated Diffusion4.Passive Transport

12.

Mycorrhiza is an example of:
1. Symbiotic relationship
2. Ectoparasitism
3. Endoparasitism
4. Decomposers

13.

Eutrophication of water bodies leading to the killing of fishes is mainly due to non-availability of:
1. Food
2. Light
3. Essential minerals
4. Oxygen

14.

Which one produces gas by decomposing the gobar (Dung) in gobar gas:
1. Fungus
2. Virus
3. Methanogenic bacteria
4. Algae

15. Which out of the following statements is incorrect?

1.Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
2.Cyclic photophosphorylation involved both PS I and PS II
3.Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesised during non-cyclic photophosphorylation
4.Stroma lamellae lack PS II and NAP reductase

16.

Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is:

1.0.092.0.9
3.0.74.0.007

17.

Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?

1.Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
2.Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage
3.Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for superovulation
4.Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time

18.

Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane:

1.Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membranes by passive transport
2.Proteins make up 60% to 70% of the cell membrane
3.Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part
4.Fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson

19.

What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid?

1.One fuses with the egg and the other fuses with central cell nuclei
2.One fuses with the egg and the other(s) degenerate(s) in the synergid
3.All fuse with the egg
4.One fuses with the egg and the other(s) fuse(s) with a synergid nucleus

20. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, including the:
1. thermoacidophiles
2. methanogens
3. eubacteria
4. halophiles

21.

If a bamboo plant is growing in a far forest then what will its trophic level be:
1. First trophic level (T1)
2. Second trophic level (T2)
3. Third trophic level (T3)
4. Fourth trophic level (T4)

22. These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss:
A: Over exploitation
B: Co-extinction
C: Mutation
D: Habitat loss and fragmentation
E: Migration
Choose the correct option:
1. A, B, C and D only
2. A, B and E only
3. A, B and D only
4. A, C and D only

23.

Given are the following five statements (I - V) for your consideration:

I:In Equisetum, the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte
II:In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not independent
III:The sporophyte in Marchantiais more developed than that in Polytrichum
IV:Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous
V:The spores of slime moulds lack cell walls


How many of the above statements is/are correct?

1.Three2.Four
3.One4.Two

24.

What occurs in crossing over:
1. Recombination
2. Mutation
3. Independent assortment
4. None

25.

Four radial V.B. are found in:
1. Dicot root
2. Monocot root
3. Dicot stem
4. Monocot stem

26.

Match Column I with Column II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column IColumn II
A.Family(i)Diptera
B.Order(ii)Arthropoda
C.Class(iii)Muscidae
D.Phylum(iv)Insecta

1. A-(iii) B-(i) C-(iv) D-(ii)
2. A-(iii) B-(ii) C-(iv) D-(i)
3. A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(i)
4. A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iii)

27.

Pneumatophores are found in:
1. The vegetation is found in marshy and saline lake
2. The vegetation is found in saline soil
3. Xerophytes
4. Epiphytes

28.

What is necessary for ripening of fruits:
1. 80% of ethylene
2. Abscisic acid
3. 2, 4 D
4. A.M.O. – 16

29.

Statement I:The codon AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine.
Statement II:AAA' and 'AAG are both codons that code for the amino acid lysine.


In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
2.Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
3.Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
4.Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

30. A normal girl, whose mother is haemophilic marries a male with no ancestral history of haemophilia. What will be the possible phenotypes of the offsprings?

(a)Haemophilic son and haemophilic daughter.
(b)Haemophilic son and carrier daughter.
(c)Normal daughter and normal son.
(d)Normal son and haemophilic daughter.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (a) and (d) only
4. (b) and (d) only

31. Which of the following protects nitrogenase inside the root nodule of a leguminous plant ?
1. Catalase
2. leg haemoglobin
3. Transaminase
4. Glutamate dehydrogenase

32.

Which of the following is/are vegetative propagule(s) ?
(a) Eyes of Potato
(b) Zoospore of Chlamydomonas
(c) Rhizome of Ginger
(d) Buds in Hydra
(e) Bulbil of Agave
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1. (e) only
2. (a), (c), (e) only
3. (a), (b), (c), (d) only
4. (b), (d) only

33.

To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?

1.Apical meristem only
2.Palisade parenchyma
3.Both apical and axillary meristems
4.Epidermis only

34.

Casparian bands are found in:

1.Endodermis2.Pericycle
3.Periderm4.Cortex

35. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitelyand competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
Statement II:In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Botany - Section B

36.

In the cloning of cattle, a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother's womb and:

1.the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of other cows
2.in the eight-cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed
which are implanted into the womb of other cows
3.in the eight-cell stage, the individual cells are separated under an electrical field for further
development in cultural media
4.from this, up to eight identical twins can be produced

37. Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?
1. Cassia
2. Pisum
3. Sesbania
4. Datura

38. Consider the following tissues in the stellar region of a stem showing secondary growth.
(A) Primary xylem
(B) Secondary xylem
(C) Primary phloem
(D) Secondary phloem
Arrange these in the correct sequence of their position from pith towards cortex.

1.(A), (B), (D), (C)2.(B), (A), (C), (D)
3.(A), (B), (C), (D)4.(B), (A), (D), (C)

39.

Which of the following structures performs the function of mitochondria in a bacteria?

1.Nucleoid2.Ribosomes
3.Cell wall4.Mesosomes

40. Which one of the following is not correct as regards the harmful effects of particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometers or less?
1. It can cause respiratory problems
2. It can directly enter into our circulatory system
3. It can cause inflammation and damage to the lungs
4. It can be inhaled into the lungs

41. Given below are two statements

Statement I: The rate of decomposition is not related to chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors.
Statement II:In a particular climatic condition, decomposition rate is faster if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are False
3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
4. Statement I is False but Statement II is True

42.

Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter the vegetative inactive stage. This is called the quiescent stageG0. This process occurs at the end of:
1.G1phase
2. S phase
3.G2phase
4. M phase

43.

The main difference between active and passive transport across cell membrane is :

1.passive transport is non-selective whereas active transport is selective
2.passive transport requires a concentration gradient across a biological membrane whereas active transport requires energy to move solutes.
3.passive transport is confined to anionic carrier proteins whereas active transport is confined to cationic channel.
4.active transport occurs more rapidly than passive

44.

Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of:
1. Biotic community
2. Population
3. Landscape
4. Ecosystem

45.

Western Ghats have a large number of plant and animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the following terms will you use to notify such species?

1.Endemic2.Vulnerable
3.Threatened4.Keystone

46. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
1.Volvox- Starch
2.Ectocarpus- Fucoxanthin
3.Ulothrix- Mannitol
4.Porphyra - Floridian starch

47.

In the majority of angiosperms:

1.egg has a filiform apparatus
2.there are numerous antipodal cells
3.reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells
4.a small central cell is present in the embryo sac

48.

A test cross is carried out to:

1.Predict whether two traits are linked
2.Assess the number of alleles of a gene
3.Determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully
4.Determine the genotype of a plant at F2

49.

Who coined the term 'Kinetin'?
1. Skoog and Miller
2. Darwin
3. Went
4. Kurosawa

50.

Biosystematics aims at:

1.The classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters
2.Delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships
3.The classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies
4.Identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of cytological characteristics

Zoology - Section A

51. Which of the following is not a complex polysaccharide?
1. Inulin
2. Chitin
3. Glucosamine
4. N-acetyl galactosamine

52. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

1.spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid
2.Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte, spermatid
3.Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
4.Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa

53.

Which of the following characteristic features always hold true for the corresponding group of animals?

(a)Viviparous(1)Mammalia
(b)Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw(2)Chordata
(c)3- chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle(3)Reptilia
(d)Cartilaginous - Endoskeleton(4)Chondrichthyes

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

54.

Nowadays, it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing the radioactive probe to hybridise its complementary DNA in clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because:

1.mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complementarity with it.
2.mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it.
3.mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
4.mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film.

55.

A certain road accident patient with an unknown blood group needs an immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor?
1. Blood group B
2. Blood group AB
3. Blood group O
4. Blood group A

56.

A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is?
1. Gamete Inseminated Fallopian Transfer
2. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
3. Gamete Internal Fertilisation and Transfer
4. Germ Cell Internal Transfer

57. Aunique vascular connection between the digestive tract and liver is called _______________ .
1. Hepato–pancreatic system
2. Hepatic portal system
3. Renal portal system
4. Hepato–cystic system

58.

Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system
1. Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal.
2. Ileum is a highly coiled part.
3. Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
4. Ileum opens into small intestine.

59. Given below are two statements:

Assertion(A):Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures.
Reason(R):Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.(A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
2.Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

60.

Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for:

1.Transformation of plant cells
2.Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
3.DNA fingerprinting
4.Disarming pathogen vectors

61.

The purplish-red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the human eyes is a derivative of:


1. vitamin-C
2. vitamin-D
3. vitamin-A
4. vitamin-B

62. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:

1.Pavo2.Ornithorhynchus
3.Salamandra4.Hippocampus

63.

In the regulation of respiration, a chemosensitive area adjacent to the rhythm centre in the medulla region of the brain, is highly sensitive to:
1.\(HCO^-_3\)
2.\(CO_2\)
3.\(O_2\)
4.\(N_2\)

64.

Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative
organism and mode of infection:

Disease

Causative Organisms

Mode of Infection

1.

Malaria

Plasmodium vivax

Bite of male Anopheles mosquito

2.

Typhoid

Salmonella typhi

With inspired air

3.

Pneumonia

Streptococcus pneumonia

Droplet infection

4.

Elephantiasis

Wuchereria bancrofti

With infected water and food

65. Given below are some stages of human evolution. Arrange them in the correct sequence (Past to Recent):
A. Homo habilis
B. Homo sapiens
C. Homo neanderthalensis
D. Homo erectus
Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from the options given below :
1. B-A-D-C
2. C-B-D-A
3. A-D-C-B
4. D-A-C-B

66.

When both ovaries of a rat are removed then which hormone is decreased in blood:
1. Oxytocin
2. Prolactin
3. Estrogen
4. Gonadotrophic releasing factor

67.

Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of :
1. Glucosamine
2. Cutin
3. Cellulose
4. Chitin

68. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A)and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby.
Reason (R): Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance inthe new born baby.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.Both (A)and (R)are correct but(R)is the not the correct explanation of(A)
2.(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
3.(A)is not correct but (R) is correct.
4.Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

69.

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

AnimalsMorphological features
A.Crocodile4-chambered heart
B.Sea urchinParapodia
C.ObeliaMetagenesis
D.LemurThecodont

1. A, C, and D
2, B, C, and D
3. Only A and D
4. Only A and B

70.

For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding of its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?

1.ELISA Technique2.Hybridization Technique
3.Western Blotting Technique4.Southern Blotting Technique

71.

In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are present but no antibody, the blood group of the individual would be:
1. O
2. AB
3. A
4. B

72.

What is the work of progesterone which is present in oral contraceptive pills:

1.To inhibit ovulation
2.To check oogenesis
3.To check the entry of sperms into the cervix & to make them inactive
4.To check sexual behavior

73. Choose the correct statements :

(a)Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs
(b)Weight bearing function is served by limb bones
(c)Ligament is the site of production of blood cells
(d)Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats
(e)Tendons attach one bone to another

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1. (a), (b) and (d) only2. (b), (c) and (e) only
3. (a), (c) and (d) only4. (a), (b) and (e) only

74.

One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice, while poured into the duodenum in humans is:
1. Enterokinase
2. Trypsinogen
3. Chymotrypsin
4. Trypsin

75.

Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it:

1.binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
2.activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
3.detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
4.prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.

76.

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion(A):Restriction enzyme is a type of endonuclease
Reason(R):Restriction enzyme cuts the two stands of DNA at specific positions within the DNA


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.(A) is False but (R) is True.
3.Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4.Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

77.

Ear wax secreting cells have which type of epithelium?
1. Columnar epithelium
2. Exocrine glandular epithelium
3. Compound epithelium
4. Endocrine glandular epithelium

78.

The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70-80%) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?
1. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
2. Distal convoluted tubule
3. Proximal convoluted tubule
4. Descending limb of the loop of Henle

79. Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?
1. High\(\mathrm{pO}_2\)and Lesser\(\mathrm{H}^{+}\)concentration
2. Low\(\mathrm{pCO}_2\)and High\(\mathrm{H}^{+}\)concentration
3. Low\(\mathrm{pCO}_2\)and High temperature
4. High\(\mathrm{pO}_2\)and High\(\mathrm{pCO}_2\)

80.

Histamine is secreted by:

1.Mast cells2.Fibroblast
3.Histiocytes4.Plasma cells

81.

Select the correct statement from the following:

1.Darwin variations are small and directionless
2.fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
3.all mammals except whales and have seven cervical vertebrae
4.Mutations are random and directional

82. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system?

1.Organs in the body like the gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones.
2.Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amounts that act as intercellular messengers are known as hormones.
3.Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland.
4.Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.

83.

A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is:

1.malonate2.oxaloacetate
3.α-ketoglutarate4.malate

84.

The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is:
1. Urethra
2. Ureter
3. Vas deferens
4. Vasa efferentia

85.

Metagenesis refers to?

1.The presence of different morphicforms
2.Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organism
3.Occurrence of a drastic change in the form during post-embryonic development
4.Presence of a segmented body and parthenogenic mode of reproduction

Zoology - Section B

86.

Which one of the following pair correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency:
1. Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
2. Thyroxine – Tetany
3. Parathyroid hormone – Diabetes mellitus
4. Luteinizing hormone – Failure of ovulation

87.

Match the following columns and select the correct option :

Column IColumn II
(a)Aptenodytes(i)Flying fox
(b)Pteropus(ii)Angel fish
(c)Pterophyllum(iii)Lamprey
(d)Petromyzon(iv)Penguin
Options:(a)(b)(c)(d)
1.(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
2.(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
3.(iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
4.(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)

88.

Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?

1.Aldosterone and Prolactin
2.Progesterone and Aldosterone
3.Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
4.Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

89.

Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in:
1. frog's males
2. human males
3. human females
4. frogs, both males and females

90.

Which of the following is associated with a decrease in cardiac output?
1. Sympathetic nerves
2. Parasympathetic neural signals
3. Pneumotaxic center
4. Adrenal medullary hormones

91.

Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA?

1.5'-CCAATG-3'
3'-GAATCC-5'
2.5'-CATTAG-3'
3'-GATAAC-5'
3.5'-GATACC-3'
3'-CCTAAG-5'
4.5'-GAATTC-3'
3'-CTTAAG-5'

92.

The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are:
1. Nucleic acid
2. Carbohydrates
3. Vitamins
4. Proteins

93.

In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germs cells differentiate into the:


1. primary spermatocytes
2. secondary spermatocytes
3. spermatids
4. spermatogonia

94.

If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to happen:

1.The pH of the stomach will fall abruptly
2.Steapsin will be more effective
3.Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones
4.The pancreatic enzymes, and especially trypsin and lipase, will not work efficiently

95.

Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of action (1--4) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow:

Method

Mode of action

A.

The pill

1.

Prevents sperms from reaching cervix

B.

Condom

2.

Prevents implantation

C.

Vasectomy

3.

Prevents ovulation

D.

Copper-T

4.

Semen contains no sperms


1. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
2. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
3. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
4. A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4

96.

Analogous structures are results of?
1. convergent evolution
2. shared ancestry
3. stabilizing selection
4. divergent evolution

97. Match List I with List II:

List IList II
A.TyphoidI.Fungus
B.LeishmaniasisII.Nematode
C.RingwormIII.Protozoa
D.FilariasisIV.Bacteria

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

98.

The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :
1.pO2= 95 and pCO2 = 40
2. pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
3. pO2 = 104 and pCO2= 40
4. pO2 = 40 and pCO2= 45

99.

Match List - I with List - II regarding sensory organs in human.

List - IList - II
(a) Organ of corti(i) Photo receptors
(b) Nasal mucosa(ii) Gustatory receptors
(c) Taste buds(iii) Auditory receptors
(d) Retina(iv) Olfactory receptors

Choose the correct answer from the option given below

(a)(b)(c)(d)
1.(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
2.(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
3.(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
4.(iii)(i)(ii)(iv)

100.

Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?

1.Henle’s loop – most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
2.Distal convoluted tubule – reabsorption of ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
3.Afferent arteriole – carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein
4.Podocytes - create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule

Chemistry - Section A

101. Which of the following sets represents a complex and a double salt, respectively?
1. CuSO4.5H2O and CuCl2,4NH3
2. PtCl2.2NH3 and PtCl4.2HCl
3. K2PtCl2.2NH3 and KAl(SO4)2.12H2O
4. NiCl2.6H2O and NiCl2(H2O)4

102.

Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a by-product. This is a colourless gas with a choking smell of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic and acts as an oxidizing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The gas X is:
1. SO2
2. CO2
3. SO3
4. H2S

103.

Which one of the following alkali metals forms only the normal oxide M2O on heating in air?
1. Rb
2. K
3. Li
4. Na

104.

The liquefied gas that is used in dry cleaning along with a suitable detergent is-
1. Water gas
2. Petroleum gas
3. NO2
4. CO2

105.

Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack?

1.Full Test - NEET PYQs (2)2.Full Test - NEET PYQs (3)
3.Full Test - NEET PYQs (4)4.Full Test - NEET PYQs (5)

106.

25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3, is dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of a solution. If sodium carbonatecompletelydissociates, the molar concentrations of sodium ion, Na+and carbonate ion,CO32-are respectively:
(molar mass of Na2CO3= 106g mol-1)
1. 0.955 M and 1.910 M
2. 1.910 M and 0.955 M
3. 1.90 M and 1.910 M
4. 0.477 M and 0.477 M

107.

A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy 75 % of octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is:
1.C3A4
2.C2A3
3.C3A2
4.C4A3

108.

The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e.,λ1andλ2will be:
1.λ1=2λ2
2.λ1=4λ2
3.λ1=12λ2
4.λ1=λ2

109. During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe2+ion?
1. Concentrated sulphuric acid
2. Dilute nitric acid
3. Dilute sulphuric acid
4. Dilute hydrochloric acid

110.

Limiting molar conductivity of NH4OH(i.e.,ΛmNH4OH0is equal to -
1. ΛmNaOH0+ΛmNaCl0-ΛmNaOH0
2. ΛmNaOH0+ΛmNaCl0-ΛmNH4Cl0
3. ΛmNH4OH0+ΛmNH4Cl0-ΛmHCl0
4. ΛmNH4Cl0+ΛmNaOH0-ΛmNaCl0

111.

The segment of DNA, that acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is:

1.Nucleotide2.Ribose
3.Gene4.Nucleoside

112.

A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH3)5(NO2)Cl freezes at -0.0073 oC. The number of moles of ions that 1 mol of ionic compound produces on being dissolved in water will be:
(Kf = -1.86oC/m)

1.22.3
3.44.1

113.

When a biochemical reaction is carried out in a laboratory outside the human body in the absence of an enzyme, then the rate of reaction obtained is10-6 times. The activation energy of a reaction in the presence of an enzyme is:
1.6RT
2. P is required.
3. Different fromEa obtained in the laboratory.
4. Data is insufficient.

114.

If the bond energies of H–H, Br – Br, and H –Br are 433, 192, and 364 kJ mol–1 respectively, the ∆Hº for the reaction H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g) will be:
1. +103 kJ
2. +261kJ
3. –103 kJ
4. –261 kJ

115.

Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product –(CO2)?
1. Ethane
2. Ethyne
3. Ethene
4. Ethanol

116.

Nitrogen form N2, but phosphorous form P2, it's at a time convert in P4, reason is:
1. Triple bond present between phosphorous atoms.
2.pπ-pπbonding is weak in phosphorous.
3.pπ-pπbonding is strong in phosphorous.
4. Multiple bonds easily form phosphorous.

117. The behaviour of samarium (Z=62) is very much like europium (Z=63). Since both elements:

1.exhibit +2 and +3 oxidation states.
2.have\(4 f^5 6 s^2 \)and\(4 f^6 6 s^2\)electronic configurations, respectively.
3.have\(4 f^7 6 s^2\)and\(4 f^8 6 s^2\)electronic configurations, respectively.
4.have same atomic radii.

118.

Which one of the following statements about enzyme catalysis is incorrect?

1.Enzymes are mostly proteinous in nature.
2.Enzyme action is specific.
3.Enzymes are denaturized by ultraviolet rays at hightemperatures.
4.Enzymes are least reactive at anoptimum temperature.

119.

A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal moles of CO and N2. If the total pressure of the mixture was found to be 1 atmosphere, then the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is:


1. 0.8 atm
2. 0.9 atm
3. 1 atm
4. 0.5 atm

120.

Which of the following is not true about chloramphenicol?

1.It inhibits the growth of only gram-positive bacteria.
2.It is a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
3.It is not bactericidal.
4.It is bacteriostatic.

121.

Pure water can be obtained from sea water by:
1. Centrifugation
2. Plasmolysis
3. Reverse osmosis
4. Sedimentation

122.

Polarisation of electrons in acrolein may be written as:
1.C+δH2=CH-C-δHO
2.C-δH2=CH-C+δHO
3.C-δH2=CH-CH+δO
4.C+δH2=CH-CHO-δ

123.

Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerization?
1. Nylon-6, 6
2. Teflon
3. Rubber
4. Styrene

124.

Which chemical reaction leads to the formation of isocyanide?
1. Reimer Tiemann reaction.
2. Carbylamine reaction.
3. Hoffmann bromamide reaction.
4. None of the above.

125.

(a) H2O2+ O3→H2O + 2O2
(b) H2O2+ Ag2O→2Ag + H2O + O2
The role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively:

1.Oxidizing in (a) and reducing in (b)
2.Reducing in (a) and oxidizing in (b)
3.Reducing in (a) and (b)
4.Oxidizing in (a) and (b)

126.

Which of the following species is not stable?
1.SiCl62-
2.SiF62-
3.GeCl62-
4.SnOH62-

127. What is the correct order of electron gain enthalpy from least negative to most negative for the elements C, Ca, Al, F, and O?
1. Al < Ca < O < C < F
2. Al < O < C < Ca < F
3. C < F < O < Al < Ca
4. Ca < Al < C < O < F

128.

Clemmensen reduction reaction is:

1.Full Test - NEET PYQs (6)
2.\(C_6H_5-CO-CH_3 + NH_2NH_2 \xrightarrow{C_2H_5ONa}\\ C_6H_5CH_2CH_3\)
3.\(CH_3COCH_3 + 4HI \xrightarrow{\text{Red. P}} CH_3CH_2CH_3\)
4.All of the above

129.

Consider the reactions:

(i)\(\small{{(CH_3)}_2CHCH_2Br\ \xrightarrow[]{C_2H_5OH}{(CH_3)}_2CHCH_2OC_2H_5 + HBr}\)    
(ii)\(\small{{(CH_3)}_2CHCH_2Br\ \xrightarrow[]{C_2H_5O^-}{(CH_3)}_2CHCH_2OC_2H_5 + Br^-}\)    

The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are, respectively:
1. SN2 and SN1
2. SN1 and SN2
3. SN1 and SN1
4. SN2 and SN2

130.

The following equilibria are given:

\(N_{2} \ + \ 3H_{2} \ \rightleftharpoons \ 2NH_{3} \) K1
\(N_{2} \ + \ O_{2} \ \rightleftharpoons \ 2NO\) K2
\(H_{2} \ + \ \frac{1}{2}O_{2} \ \rightleftharpoons \ H_{2}O\) K3


The equilibrium constant of the reaction
\(2NH_{3} \ + \ \frac{5}{2}O_{2} \ \rightleftharpoons \ 2NO \ + \ 3H_{2}O\)in terms of K1, K2and K3is:
1. K1.K2.K3
2.\(\mathrm{\frac{K_{1}K_{2}}{K_{3}}}\)
3.\(\mathrm{\frac{K_{1}K_{3}^{2}}{K_{3}}}\)
4.\(\mathrm{\frac{K_{2}K_{3}^{3}}{K_{1}}}\)

131.

I:The product of the reaction of phenol with bromine depends on the nature of the solvent.
II:The reaction of phenol with bromine in CHCl3 gives a monosubstituted bromo derivative whereas the reaction of phenol with bromine water yields a trisubstituted bromo derivative of phenol.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.I is correct and IIis incorrect
2.I is incorrect and IIis correct
3.Both I and II are correct
4.Both I and II are incorrect

132.

A paramagnetic molecule among the following is:

1.O22.CN
3.NO+4.CO

133. Which complex among the following exhibits a paramagnetic nature?
1. [Co(NH3)6]3+
2. [Pt(en)Cl2]
3. [CoBr4]2–
4. Mo(CO)6
(At. No. Mo = 42, Pt = 78)

134. The reaction that does not take place in a blast furnace between 900 K to 1500 K temperature range during the extraction of iron is:
1. CaO + SiO2→ CaSiO3
2. Fe2O3+ CO→ 2FeO + CO2
3. FeO + CO→ Fe +CO2
4. C + CO2→ 2CO

135.

Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, the one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is:
1. Magnesium chloride
2. Beryllium chloride
3. Calcium chloride
4. Strontium chloride

Chemistry - Section B

136.

Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take place?

1.Full Test - NEET PYQs (7)
2.Full Test - NEET PYQs (8)
3.Full Test - NEET PYQs (9)
4.Full Test - NEET PYQs (10)

137.

Increasing order of bond length is:
1.NO-<NO<NO+<O2-
2.O2-<NO<NO-<NO+
3.O2-<NO-<NO<NO+
4.NO+<NO<NO-<O2-

138. Select the correct option based on statements below:

Assertion(A):In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells.
Reason(R):In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality.
1.(A) is false but (R) is true.
2.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)is the correct explanation of (A).
3.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.(A) is true but (R) is false.

139. What fraction of Fe exists as Fe(III) in Fe0.96O?
(Consider Fe0.96 to be made up of Fe(II) and Fe(III) only)
1. \(\frac{1}{12}\)
2. \(0.08\)
3. \(\frac{1}{16}\)
4. \(\frac{1}{20}\)

140.

In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide with?
1. Iron(II) sulphide
2.Carbon monoxide
3. Copper(I) sulphide
4.Sulphur dioxide

141.

A strong base can abstract anα-hydrogen from:
1. Alkene
2. Amine
3. Ketone
4. Alkane

142. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is\(1\times 10^{-4}\)in order to prepare a buffer solution with pH=5 the [salt]/ [Acid] ratio should be:
1. 4 : 5
2. 10 : 1
3. 5 : 4
4. 1 : 10

143.

Nylon is an example of:
1. Polysaccharide
2. Polyamide
3. Polythene
4. Polyester

144.

For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is :
1.U=0,Stotal0
2. U0,Stotal=0
3.U=0,Stotal=0
4.U0,Stotal0

145. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is
Full Test - NEET PYQs (11)

1.Full Test - NEET PYQs (12)2.Full Test - NEET PYQs (13)
3.Full Test - NEET PYQs (14)4.Full Test - NEET PYQs (15)

146. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion(A):Metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia giving a deep blue solution, which is paramagnetic.
Reason(R):The deep blue solution is due to the formation of amide.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.(A) is false but (R) is true.
2.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.Both (A) and (R) are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
4.(A) is true but (R) is false.

147.

If the molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be-
1. Halved
2. Tripled
3. Unchanged
4. Doubled

148.

If there is no rotation of plane-polarized light by a compound in a specific solvent
thought to be chiral, it may mean that:
1. The compound is certainly a chiral.
2. The compound is certainly meso.
3. There is no compound in the solvent.
4. The compound may be a racemic mixture.

149.

Artificial sweetener which is stable under cold conditions only is:
1. Saccharine
2. Sucralose
3. Aspartame
4. Alitame

150.

How many electrons can fit in the subshell for which n = 3 andl= 1?
1. 2
2. 6
3. 10
4. 14

Physics - Section A

151.

The half-life of a sample of a radioactive element containing 4 × 1016 active nuclei, is 10 days. The number of decayed nuclei after 30 days will be:
1.0.5×1016
2.2×1016
3.3.5×1016
4.1×1016

152. Select the correct option based on the statements:

Statement I:The magnetic field of a circular loop at very far away point on the axial line varies with distance as like that of a magnetic dipole.
Statement II:The magnetic field due to magnetic dipole varies inversely with the square of the distance from the centre on the axial line.
1.Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
2.Statement I is incorrect andStatement II is correct.
3.Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4.Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

153.

The given graph represents the \(\mathrm{V\text{-} I}\) characteristic for a semiconductor device.
Full Test - NEET PYQs (16)
Which of the following statement is correct?

1.It is a \(\mathrm{V\text{-} I}\) characteristic for the solar cell where point \(\mathrm{A}\) represents open-circuit voltage and point \(\mathrm{B}\) short circuit current.
2.It is for a solar cell and points \(\mathrm{A}\) and \(\mathrm{B}\) represent open-circuit voltage and current, respectively.
3.It is for a photodiode and points \(\mathrm{A}\) and \(\mathrm{B}\) represent open-circuit voltage and current respectively.
4.It is for a LED and points \(\mathrm{A}\) and \(\mathrm{B}\) represent open circuit voltage and short circuit current, respectively.

154.

The dimensions ofμ0ε0-1/2are:
1.L-1T
2.LT-1
3.L-1/2T1/2
4.L-1/2T-1/2

155.

A ball is dropped from a height of \(5~\text {m}.\)If it rebounds up to a height of \(1.8~\text {m},\)then the ratio of velocities of the ball after and before the rebound will be:
1.\(\dfrac{3}{5}\)
2.\(\dfrac{2}{5}\)
3.\(\dfrac{1}{5}\)
4.\(\dfrac{4}{5}\)

156. If \(\lambda_X,\lambda_I,\lambda_M\) and \(\lambda_\gamma\) are the wavelengths of \(X\)-rays, infrared rays, microwaves and \(\gamma\)-rays respectively, then:

1.\(\lambda_\gamma<\lambda_X<\lambda_I<\lambda_M\)
2.\(\lambda_M<\lambda_I<\lambda_X<\lambda_\gamma\)
3.\(\lambda_X<\lambda_\gamma<\lambda_M<\lambda_I\)
4.\(\lambda_X<\lambda_I<\lambda_\gamma<\lambda_M\)

157. A Carnot engine whose sink is at \(300~\text{K}\)has an efficiency of \(40\%.\)By how much should the temperature of the source be increased to increase its efficiency by \(50\%\)of its original efficiency?

1.\(275~\text{K}\)2.\(325~\text{K}\)
3.\(250~\text{K}\)4.\(380~\text{K}\)

158.

A body of mass \(m\) is attached to the lower end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible mass. When the mass \(m\) is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period of \(3~\text{s}\). When the mass \(m\) is increased by \(1~\text{kg}\), the time period of oscillations becomes \(5~\text{s}\). The value of \(m\) in \(\text{kg}\) is:
1.\(\frac{3}{4}\)
2.\(\frac{4}{3}\)
3.\(\frac{16}{9}\)
4.\(\frac{9}{16}\)

159.

The mean free path \(l\) for a gas molecule depends upon the diameter, \(d\) of the molecule as:

1.\(l\propto \dfrac{1}{d^2}\)2.\(l\propto d\)
3.\(l\propto d^2 \)4.\(l\propto \dfrac{1}{d}\)

160.

If the velocity of a particle is \(v=At+Bt^{2},\) where \(A\) and \(B\) are constants, then the distance travelled by it between \(1~\text{s}\)and \(2~\text{s}\)is:

1.\(3A+7B\)2.\(\frac{3}{2}A+\frac{7}{3}B\)
3.\(\frac{A}{2}+\frac{B}{3}\)4.\(\frac{3A}{2}+4B\)

161.

A wire of length \(L,\)area of cross section \(A\) is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to \({L}_1\)when mass \(M\) is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young's modulus is:

1.\(\dfrac{{Mg(L}_1-{L)}}{{AL}}\)2.\(\dfrac{{MgL}}{{AL}_1}\)
3.\(\dfrac{{MgL}}{{A(L}_1-{L})}\)4.\(\dfrac{{MgL}_1}{{AL}}\)

162.

A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of an electron microscope. This is because:

1.the resolution power of the electron microscope is much higher than that of the light microscope.
2.the resolving power of the electron microscope is 200-350 nm compared to 0.1-0.2 nm for the light microscope.
3.electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy requires thin sections.
4.the electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons that has a wavelength much longer than that of photons.

163.

The number of photoelectrons emitted for the light of a frequencyν (higher than the threshold frequency ν0) is proportional to:
1.ν -ν0
2. threshold frequency (ν0)
3. intensity of light
4. frequency of light (ν)

164.

A \(220\) V input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of \(2.0\) A at \(440\) V. If the efficiency of the transformer is \(80\)%, the current drawn by the primary windings of the transformer is:
1. \(3.6\) A
2. \(2.8\) A
3. \(2.5\) A
4. \(5.0\) A

165. If a vector\((2\hat i +3\hat j+8\hat k)\) is perpendicular to the vector\((4\hat i-4\hat j+\alpha\hat k)\) then the value of\(\alpha\)is:
1.\(-1\)
2.\(\frac{-1}{2}\)
3.\(\frac{1}{2}\)
4.\(1\)

166.

If the focal length of the objective lens is increased then the magnifying power of:

1.microscope will increase but that of the telescope decrease.
2.microscope and telescope both will increase.
3.microscope and telescope both will decrease.
4.microscope will decrease but that of the telescope will increase.

167. In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is \(\lambda\). The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is:
1.\(16\lambda\)
2.\(2\lambda\)
3.\(4\lambda\)
4.\(9\lambda\)

168.

An object kept in a large room having an air temperature of \(25^\circ \text{C}\)takes \(12\) minutes to cool from \(80^\circ \text{C}\) to \(70^\circ \text{C}.\) The time taken to cool for the same object from \(70^\circ \text{C}\) to \(60^\circ \text{C}\) would be nearly:
1. \(10\) min
2. \(12\) min
3. \(20\) min
4. \(15\) min

169.

The length of the string of a musical instrument is \(90\) cm and has a fundamental frequency of \(120\) Hz. Where should it be pressed to produce a fundamental frequency of \(180\) Hz?

1.\(75\) cm2.\(60\) cm
3.\(45\) cm4.\(80\) cm

170.

A bullet of mass \(2~\text {gm}\)has a charge of \(2~\mu\text{C}.\)Through what potential difference must it be accelerated, starting from rest, to acquire a speed of \(10~\text{m/s}?\)
1.\(50~\text {kV}\)
2.\(5~\text {V}\)
3.\(50~\text {V}\)
4.\(5~\text {kV}\)

171.

What is the flux through a cube of side \(a,\) if a point charge of \(q\) is placed at one of its corners?
1.\(\frac{2q}{\varepsilon_0}\)
2.\(\frac{q}{8\varepsilon_0}\)
3.\(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_0}\)
4.\(\frac{q}{2\varepsilon_0}\)

172. Two discs are rotating about theirrespective axes, which are normal to the discs and pass through their centres. Disc \(D_1\) has a\(2\) kg mass and \(0.2\) m radius and an initial angular velocity of \(50~\text{rad} ~\text{s}^{-1}.\) Disc \(D_2\) has a\(4\) kg mass, \(0.1\) m radius and an initial angular velocity of\(200~\text{rad} ~\text{s}^{-1}.\) The two discs are brought into contact face to face, with their axes of rotation coincident. The final angular velocity(in \(\text{rad} ~\text{s}^{-1}\)) of the combined system is:
1. \(60\)
2. \(100\)
3. \(120\)
4. \(40\)

173. The value of \(R\) for which power in it is maximum is:
Full Test - NEET PYQs (17)
1. \(3~\Omega\)
2. \(6~\Omega\)
3. \(12~\Omega\)
4. \(9~\Omega\)

174.

A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of \(5R\) above the surface of the earth, \(R\) being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a height of \(2R\) from the surface of the earth is:
1. \(5\)
2. \(10\)
3.\(6\sqrt2\)
4.\(\frac{6}{\sqrt{2}}\)

175.

A coil of resistance \(400~\Omega\)is placed in a magnetic field. The magnetic flux\(\phi~\text{(Wb)}\)linked with the coil varies with time \(t~\text{(s)}\)as\(\phi=50t^{2}+4.\)The current in the coil at \(t=2~\text{s}\)is:
1. \(0.5~\text{A}\)
2. \(0.1~\text{A}\)
3. \(2~\text{A}\)
4. \(1~\text{A}\)

176. The distance covered by a body of mass \(5\) g having linear momentum \(0.3\) kg-m/s in \(5\) s is:
1. \(300\) m
2. \(30\) m
3. \(3\) m
4. \(0.3\) m

177. The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of the projectile is:
1.\(\theta = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)\)
2.\(\theta = \tan^{-1}(4)\)
3.\(\theta = \tan^{-1}(2)\)
4.\(\theta = 45^{\circ}\)

178.

The heart of a man pumps \(5~\text{L}\) of blood through the arteries per minute at a pressure of \(150~\text{mm}\) of mercury. If the density of mercury is\(13.6\times10^{3}~\text{kg/m}^{3}\)and\(g = 10~\text{m/s}^2,\)then the power of the heart in watts is:
1.\(1.70\)
2.\(2.35\)
3.\(3.0\)
4.\(1.50\)

179. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then:

1.the speed of the particle remains unchanged.
2.the direction of the particle remains unchanged.
3.the acceleration remains unchanged.
4.the velocity remains unchanged.

180.

The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time interval(t2-t1)between the timet2when23of it has decayed and the timet1when13of it had decayed is:
1. 50 days
2. 60 days
3. 15 days
4. 30 days

181.

A bar magnet of length \(l\) and magnetic dipole moment \(M\) is bent in the form of an arc as shown in the figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be:
Full Test - NEET PYQs (18)

1.\(\dfrac{3M}{\pi}\)2.\(\dfrac{2M}{l\pi}\)
3.\(\dfrac{M}{ 2}\)4.\(M\)

182.

Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which one of the diodes is reverse biased?

1.Full Test - NEET PYQs (19)2.Full Test - NEET PYQs (20)
3.Full Test - NEET PYQs (21)4.Full Test - NEET PYQs (22)

183. The unit of thermal conductivity is:

1.W m–1K–12.J m K–1
3.J m–1K–14.W m K–1

184.

A mass of \(0.5~\text{kg}\)moving with a speed of \(1.5~\text{m/s}\)on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring with force constant \(k=50~\text{N/m}.\)The maximum compression of the spring would be:
Full Test - NEET PYQs (23)
1.\(0.12~\text{m}\)
2.\(1.5~\text{m}\)
3.\(0.5~\text{m}\)
4.\(0.15~\text{m}\)

185.

Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?

1.violet2.red
3.blue4.green

Physics - Section B

186.

If identical charges \((-q)\) are placed at each corner of a cube of side \(b\) then the electrical potential energy of charge \((+q)\) which is placed at centre of the cube will be:

1.\(\dfrac{- 4 \sqrt{2} q^{2}}{\pi\varepsilon_{0} b}\)2.\(\dfrac{- 8 \sqrt{2} q^{2}}{\pi\varepsilon_{0} b}\)
3.\(\dfrac{- 4 q^{2}}{\sqrt{3} \pi\varepsilon_{0} b}\)4.\(\dfrac{8 \sqrt{2} q^{2}}{4 \pi\varepsilon_{0} b}\)

187. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If \(i\) is the current in the circuit, then in the gap between the plates:

1.displacement current of magnitude equal to \(i\)flows in the same direction as \(i\).
2.displacement current of magnitude equal to \(i\)flows in a direction opposite to that of \(i\).
3.displacement current of magnitude greater than \(i\)flows but can be in any direction.
4.there is no current.

188.

A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential difference of V1. The plates of thecondenser are then connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L.The current through the inductor, when the potential difference across the condenser reduces to V2 is:
1.CV12-V22L
2.CV12+V22L
3.CV12-V22L1/2
4.CV1-V22L1/2

189. In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-\(2\) from solenoid-\(1\). The direction of induced current in solenoid-\(1\) and that in solenoid-\(2\), respectively, are through the directions:
Full Test - NEET PYQs (24)
1. \(BA\) and \(CD\)
2. \(AB\) and \(CD\)
3. \(BA\) and \(DC\)
4. \(AB\)and \(DC\)

190.

Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample decay into a stable nucleus R. At time t = 0, number of P species are 4N0 and that of Q are N0. The half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute whereas that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially, there are no nuclei of R present in the sample. When the number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the number of nuclei of R present in the samplewould be:
1.2N0
2.3N0
3.9N02
4.5N02

191.

A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of the same mass and radius a. The gravitational potential at a point situated at a / 2 distance from the centre, will be:
1.-3GMa
2.-2GMa
3.-GMa
4.-4GMa

192.

The \((P\text{-}V)\) diagram for an ideal gas in a piston-cylinder assembly undergoing a thermodynamic process is shown in the figure. The process is:
Full Test - NEET PYQs (25)

1.adiabatic2.isochoric
3.isobaric4.isothermal

193. A particle of mass \(m\)and charge \(q\)is placed in a uniform electric field \(E\)at \(t=0~\text s.\)The kinetic energy of the particle after time \(t\)is:
1. \(\dfrac{Eqm}{t}\)
2. \(\dfrac{E^2q^2t^2}{2m}\)
3. \(\dfrac{2E^2t^2}{qm}\)
4. \(\dfrac{Eq^2m}{2t^2}\)

194.

For the network shown in the figure below, the value of the current \(i\) is:
Full Test - NEET PYQs (26)
1.\(\frac{18V}{5}\)
2.\(\frac{5V}{9}\)
3.\(\frac{9V}{35}\)
4.\(\frac{5V}{18}\)

195.

The de-Broglie wavelength of the thermal electron at \(27^\circ \text{C}\) is \(\lambda.\) When the temperature is increased to \(927^\circ \text{C},\) its de-Broglie wavelength will become:
1.\(2\lambda\)
2.\(4\lambda\)
3.\(\frac\lambda2\)
4.\(\frac\lambda4\)

196.

The electron concentration in an \(\mathrm{n\text-}\)type semiconductor is the same as the hole concentration in a \(\mathrm{p\text{-}}\)type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.

1.current in \(\mathrm{n\text-}\)type \(>\) current in \(\mathrm{p\text{-}}\)type.
2.no current will flow in \(\mathrm{p\text{-}}\)type, current will only flow in\(\mathrm{n\text-}\)type.
3.current in \(\mathrm{n\text-}\)type \(=\) current in \(\mathrm{p\text{-}}\)type.
4.current in \(\mathrm{p\text{-}}\)type \(>\) current in \(\mathrm{n\text-}\)type.

197.

A ball is dropped from a high-rise platform at \(t=0\) starting from rest. After \(6\) seconds, another ball is thrown downwards from the same platform with speed \(v\). The two balls meet after \(18\) seconds. What is the value of \(v\)?

1.\(75\) ms-12.\(55\)ms-1
3.\(40\)ms-14.\(60\)ms-1

198.

A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instantaneous power delivered to the car has a constant magnitude \(P_0\). The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to:
1.\(t^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
2.\(t^{\frac{-1}{2}}\)
3.\(\frac{t}{\sqrt{m}}\)
4.\(t^2 P_0\)

199. Young’s double-slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that the \(8^\mathrm{th}\)bright fringe in the medium lies where the \(5^\mathrm{th}\)dark fringe lies in the air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly:
1.\(1.59\)
2.\(1.69\)
3.\(1.78\)
4.\(1.25\)

200.

The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of \(1\) g of Helium at NTP, from \({T_1}\)K to \({T_2}\)K is:
1.\(\frac{3}{2}N_ak_B(T_2-T_1)\)
2.\(\frac{3}{4}N_ak_B(T_2-T_1)\)
3.\(\frac{3}{4}N_ak_B\frac{T_2}{T_1}\)
4.\(\frac{3}{8}N_ak_B(T_2-T_1)\)

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